UPSC Test Papers

May 5, 2010

General Knowledge

Filed under: Uncategorized — Tags: , — bhartirajesh @ 9:22 am


41. Groups each containing 3 boys are to be formed out
of 5 boys – A, B, C, D and E such that not one group

contains both C and D together. What is the maxi¬mum number of such different groups?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
42. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each
face carrying one different number. Further,
1. The face 2 is opposite to the face 6.
2. The face 1 is opposite to the face 5.
3. The face 3 is between the face 1 and the face 5. 4. The face 4 is adjace~t to the face 2.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3
(b) The face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4. (c) The face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6 (d) None of the above
43. Each of the 3 persons is to be given sqme identical items such that product of the numbers of items received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In how many maximum different ways can this distribution be done?
(a) 21 (c) 27
(b) 24 (d) 33
44. 6 equidistant vertical lines are drawn on a board. 6 equidistant horizontal lines are also drawn on the board cutting the 6 vertical lines, and the distance between any two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to that between any two consecutive vertical lines. What is the maximum number of squares thus formed?
(a) 37 (b) 55
(c) 126 (d) 225
45.
In the figure shown above, what is the maximum number of different ways in which 8 identical balls can be placed in the small triangles 1, 2, 3 and 4 such that each triangle contains at least one ball?
(a) 32 (b) 35
(c) 44 (d) 56
46. Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kenya is known for her contribution to which one of the following?
(a) Journalism
(b) International economics, (c) Sustainable development (d) Child development
47. Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following?
(a) Cardiology (b) Influenza virus
(c) HIV / AIDS (d) Alzheimer
48. How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez well-known as? (a) Known for research in agriculture
(b) A renowned football coach
(c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for
literature
(d) Known for research in railway engineering
49. MCA-21 is a major initiative taken up by the
Government of India in which one of the following
areas?
(a) Foreign direct investment in India
(b) Attracting international tourists
(c) e-governance
(d) Mo~rnisation of airports
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The repo rate is the rate at which other banks
borrow from the Reserve Bank of India.
2. A value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country
implies that there is perfectly equal income for
everyone in its population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Where was the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957?
(a) Minnowbrook (USA)
(c) Nova Scotia (Canada)
(b) Rhode Island (USA) (d) Nagasaki Oapan)
52. For which one of the following books did Kiran Desai win the Man Booker prize 2006?
(a) The Secret River
(b) In the Country of Men
(c) The Inheritance of Loss
(d) Mother’s Milk
53. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental protection
(b) Olympic Games
(c) Journalism
(d) Civil Aviation
54. A person has to completely put each of three liquids: 403 litres of petrol, 465 litres of diesel and 496 litres of Mobile Oil in bottles of equal size without mixing any of the above three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled. What is the least possible number of bottles required?
(a) 34 (b) 44
(c) 46 (d) None of the above

Ans: 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47 (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d)

April 19, 2010

2007 Exam Paper

Filed under: Uncategorized — Tags: , , — bhartirajesh @ 9:14 am

29. Which one of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation?
(a) Russia (b) Kazakhstan
(c) Ukraine (d) Uzbekistan
30. With reference to the steel industry in India in the recent times, consider the following statements:
1. Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been declared Mini
Ratna.
2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Who among the following wrote the book – A yodhya: 6 December 1992?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(c) Jaswant Singh
(b) P. V. Narasimha Rao (d) Arun Shourie
32. With reference to the international me~tings held in the year 2006, which of the following pairs is/ate
correctly matched?
1. NAM Summit
2. APEC Meeting
3. EU-India Summit
4. UN Climate
Change Conference
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) I, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
33. The Stilwell Road, built in 1940s, which was recently in news, connects which of the following?
(a) Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar via
Bangladesh
(b) Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar (c) Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibet via Bhutan (d) Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand via
Myanmar
Havana Bangkok Helsinki Geneva
34. NASA’s Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
(a) Halley’s Comet (b) Ha,le-Bopp
(c) Hyakutake (d) Tempel 1
35. Who among the following bowlers have taken more than 500 wickets in Test Cricket?
1. Wasim Akram 2. Richard Hadlee
3. Glen McGrath 4. Courtney Walsh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) I, 2 and 3 (d) I, 2, 3 and 4
36. Which one of the following places was associated with Acharya Vinoba Bhave’s Bhoodan Movement at the beginning of the movement?
(a) Udaygiri (b) Raipur
(c) Pochampalli (d) Venkatagiri

37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Company)
A. Vishwapati Trivedi 1. Essar Group
B. Tulsi R. Tanti 2. Info Edge India (which
runs naukri.com)
3. Indian (Indian Airlines)
4. Suzlon Energy
C. Shashi Ruia
D. S. Bikhchandani
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 3 2 3
D
3 2 3 2
B 4 1 1 4
C
1 4 4 1
38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India?
(a) Services – Industry – Agriculture (b) Services – Agriculture – Industry (c) Industry – Services – Agriculture (d) Industry – Agriculture – Services
39. Consider the following statements:
1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) is the name of the new organisation which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
2. The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO
when it was formed in the year 1949.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40.
In how many maximum different ways can 3 identical balls be placed in the 12 squares (each ball to-jJepiaced in the exact centre of the squares and only one ball is to be placed in one square) shown in the figure given above such that they do not lie along the same straight line?
(a) 144 (c) 204
(b) 200 (d) 216

Ans: 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d)
36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)

April 10, 2010

Question Answers from UPSC Test Paper 2007

Filed under: Uncategorized — Tags: , , , , — bhartirajesh @ 1:27 pm

13. Consider the following statements:
1. In the year 2006, India successfully tested a full¬
fledged cryogenic state in rocketry.
2. After USA, Russia and China, India is the only
country to have acquired the capability for use
of cryogenic stage in rocketry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the following statements:
1. In November, 2006, DRDO successfully conducted
the interception tests using Prithvi-II missile.
2. Prithvi-II is a surface-to-surface missile and can
be deployed to guard the metros against air
attacks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
a) T.S.
(b) K.c. Pant
(c) A.M. Khusro
(d) R.c. Lahoti
16.
Former Chief Election Krishnamurthy Commissioner of India Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission Former Chief Justice of India
B
(Each small circle represents a different station)
What is the maximum number of different paths that
exist between the station A and the station B?
(a) (c)
(b) 31 (d) 35
28 33
17. Amit has five friends: 3 girls and 2 boys. Amit’s wife also has 5 friends: 3 boys and 2 girls. In how many maximum number of different ways can they invite 2 boys and 2 girls such that two of them are Amit’s friends and two are his wife’s?
(a) (c)
(b) 38 (d) 58
24 46
18. Five balls of different colours are to be placed in three
different boxes such that any box contains at least one
ball. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
(a) (c)
90 150
(b) 120 (d) 180
19. All the six letters of the name SACHIN are arranged to form different words without repeating any letter in anyone word. The words so formed are then arranged as in a dictionary. What will be the position of the word SACHIN in that sequence?
(a) 436 (b) 590
(c) 601 (d) 751
20. Three dice (each having six faces with each face having one number from 1 to 6) are rolled. What is the number of possible outcomes such that at least one dice shows the number 2?
(a) (c)
36 91
(b) 81 (d) 116
21. Who among the following is considered as the inven¬
tor of the World Wide Web (WWW)?
(a) Edward Kasner (b) Bill Gates
(c) Tim Berners-Lee (d) Vinod Dham
22. Who was Leander Paes’s partner when he won
Doubles Final in the US Open Tennis Tournament,
2oo6?
(a) Max Mirnyi (c) Bob Bryan
(b) Martin Damm (d) Mike Bryan
23. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
(a) Buenos Aires (b) Hawaiian Islands
(c) Rio de Janeiro (d) Valletta ..
24. Which one of the following cities has been the venue of the Asian Games for the maximum number of times from the year 1951 to the year 2006?
(a) Delhi (b) Bangkok
(c) Tokyo’ (d) Beijing
25. Where are the headquarters of the Organisation of the Islamic Conference (Ole) located?
(a) Dubai (b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad (d) Ankara
26. Which one of the following is another name of RDX?
(a) Cyanohydrin (b) Dextran
(c) Cyclohexane (d) Cyclonite
27. Which one of the following non-metals is not a poor conductor of electricity?
(a) Sulphur
(c) Bromine
(b) Selenium (d) Phosphorus
28. Which one of the following types of glass can cut off
ultraviolet rays?
(a) Soda glass
(c) Jena glass
(b) Pyrex glass (d) Crookes glass

Ans: 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d)

April 8, 2010

Test paper 2007

Filed under: Uncategorized — Tags: , — bhartirajesh @ 7:13 am

1. Which of the following countries signed the Tshwane
Declaration in October 2006?
(a) China and South Africa
(b) India and South Africa
(c) South Africa and Botswana
(d) Saudi Arabia and South Africa
2. Recently, the European Union and other six countries including India signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) Project. Which one of the following was not a signatory to it?
(a) Canada (b) China
(c) Japan (d) USA
3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Known As)
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam dancer
B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarsini Govind 3. Mridangam maestro D. T.V. Gopalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 3 2 3
D
3 2 3 2
B
1 1 4 4
C
4 4 1 1
4. Which one of the following Himalayan Passes was reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate trade between India and China?
(a) Chang La (b) Jara La
(c) Nathu La (d) Shipki La
5. How is Steve Fossett known as?
(a) As a crocodile hunter
(b) For completing the longest non-stop flight around
the globe
(c) For swimming across Atlantic Ocean
(d) For climbing to Mt. Everest without any
co-climber
6. Basel II relates to which one of the following?
(a) International standards for safety in civil aviation (b) Measures against cyber crimes
(c) Measures against drug abuse by sportspersons (d) International standards for measuring the
adequacy of a bank’s capital
7. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Person) (Position/Orgallisations)
A. Nancy Pelosi 1. WTO
B. Margaret Chan 2. Speaker, U.S. House of
Representatives
3. WHO
4. Microsoft
C. Pascal Lamy D. Steve Ballmer Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
2 4 2 4
B
1 3 3 1
C
3 1 1 3
D
4 2 4 2
8. In which one of the Automotive Research (a) Chennai
(c) Pune
following cities is the Centre being set up?
(b) Hyderabad (d) Gurgaon
Global
9. Consider the. following statements:
1. Republicans won the majority in the US House
of Representatives Elections held in the year 2006.
2. Republican Bobby Jindal, won a seat in the US
House of Representatives for the second time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. What is the broad area in which the Nobel Prize winners for the year 2006 in Physiology or Medicine, worked to get the Prize?
(a) Prevention of weakening due to ageing
(b) Flow of genetic information
(c) Immunology and disease resistance
(d) Adult stem-cell research
f
11. In which one the following districts, have large reserves of diamond-bearing kimberlite been discovered in the recent past?
(a) Hoshangabad (b) Raipur
(c) Sambalpur (d) Warangal
12. Which one of the following countries is planning to construct a rival to the Panama Canal to link the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans?
(a) Colombia
(c) Guatemala
(b) ~Costa Rica (d) Nicaragua

Ans: 1. (b 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d)

Scheme of Subjects for the Preliminary & Main Examinations

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A. Preliminary Examination

The examination will consist of two papers.

Paper I General Studies
150 marks
Paper II One subject to be selected from the list of optional subjects set out in Para 2 below
300 marks
Total :
450 marks

2. List of optional subjects for Preliminary Examination.

Agriculture
Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science
Botany
Chemistry
Civil Engineering
Commerce
Economics
Electrical Engineering
Geography
Geology
Indian History
Law
Mathematics
Mechanical Engineering
Medical Science
Philosophy
Physics
Political Science
Psychology
Public Administration
Sociology
Statistics
Zoology
Note (i) Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions).

(ii) The question papers will be set both in Hindi and English.

(iii) The course content of the syllabi for the optional subjects will be of the degree level. Details of the syllabi are indicated in Part A of Section III.

(iv) Each paper will be of two hours duration. Blind candidates will, however, be allowed an extra time of twenty minutes at each paper.

B. Main Examination

The written examination will consist of the following papers :

Paper I One of the Indian languages to be selected by the candidate from the Languages included in the Eighth Scheduled to the Constitution. 300 marks
Paper II English 300 marks
Paper III Essay 200 marks
Papers IV and V General Studies 300 marks for each paper
Papers VI, VII, VIII and IX Any two subjects to be selected from the list of the optional subjects set out in para 2 below. Each subject will have two papers. 300 marks for each paper
Interview Test will carry 300 marks.

Note (i) The papers on Indian Languages and English will be of Matriculation or equivalent standard and will be of qualifying nature; the marks obtained in these papers will not be counted for ranking.

(ii) The papers on Essay, General Studies and Optional Subjects of only such candidates will be evaluated as attain such minimum standard as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion for the qualifying papers on Indian Language and English.

(iii) The paper-I on Indian Languages will not, however, be compulsory for candidates hailing from the North-Eastern States of Arunachanl Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland and also for candidates hailing from the State of Sikkim.

(iv) For the Language papers, the script to be used by the candidates will be as under :–

Language Script
Assamese
Assamese
Bengali
Bengali
Bodo
Devanagari
Dogri
Devanagari
Gujarati
Gujarati
Hindi
Devanagari
Kannada
Kannada
Kashmiri
Persian
Konkani
Devanagari
Maithili
Devanagari
Malayam
Malayalam
Manipuri
Bengali
Marathi
Devanagari
Nepali
Devanagari
Oriya
Oriya
Punjabi
Gurmukhi
Sanskrit
Devanagari
Santhali
Devanagari or Olchiki
Sindhi
Devanagari or Arabic
Tamil
Tamil
Telugu
Telugu
Urdu
Persian
Note:- For Santhali language, question paper will be printed in Devanagari script; but candidates will be free to answer either in Devanagari script or in Olchiki.

2. List of optional subjects for Main Examination

Agriculture
Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science
Anthropology
Botany
Chemistry
Civil Engineering
Commerce and Accountancy
Economics
Electrical Engineering
Geography
Geology
History
Law
Management
Mathematics
Mechanical Engineering
Medical Science
Philosophy
Physics
Political Science and International Relations
Psychology
Public Administration
Sociology
Statistics
Zoology
Literature of one of the following languages :

Arabic, Assamese, Bodo, Bengali, Dogri, Chinese, English, French, German, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Pali, Persian, Punjabi, Russian, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu.

Note (i) Candidates will not be allowed to offer the following combinations of subjects :–

(a) Political Science & International Relations and Public Administration;
(b) Commerce & Accountancy and Management;
(c) Anthropology and Sociology;
(d) Mathematics and Statistics;
(e) Agriculture and Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science.
(f) Management and Public Administration;
(g) Of the Engineering subjects, viz., Civil Engineering, Electrical Engineering and Mechanical Engineering–not more than one subject.
(h) Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science and Medical Science.

(ii) The question papers for the examination will be of conventional (essay) type.
(iii) Each paper will be of three hours duration. Blind candidates will, however be allowed an extra time of thirty minutes at each paper.
(iv) Candidates will have the option to answer all the question papers, except the language papers viz. Papers I and II above in any one of the languages in cluded in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution or in English.

(v) Candidates exercising the option to answer papers III to IX in any one of the languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution may, if they so desire, give English version within brackets of only the description of the technical terms, if any, in addition to the version in the language opted by them.

Candidates should, however, note that if they misuse the above rule, a deduction will be made on this account from the total marks otherwise accruing to them and in extreme cases, their script(s) will not be valued for being in an unauthorised medium.

(vi) The question papers other than language papers will be set both in Hindi and English.
(vii) The details of the syllabi are set out in Part B of Section III

General Instructions (Preliminary as well as Main Examination) :

(i) Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances, will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write the answers for them. However, blind candidates will be allowed to write the examination with the help of a scribe.

(ii) An extra time of twenty minutes per hour shall be permitted for the candidates with locomotors disability and cerebral palsy where dominant (writing) extremity is affected to the extent of slowing the performance of function (minimum of 40% impairment) in the Civil Services (Main) Examination only. However, no scribe shall be permitted to such candidates.

Note (1) : The eligibility conditions of a scribe, his/her conduct inside the examination hall and the manner in which and extent to which he/she can help the blind candidate in writing the Civil Services Examination shall be governed by the instructions issued by the UPSC in this regard. Violation of all or any of the said instructions shall entail the cancellation of the candidature of the blind candidate in addition to any other action that the UPSC may take against the scribe.

Note (2) : For purpose of these rules the candidate shall be deemed to be a blind candidate if the percentage of visual impairment is 40% or more. The criteria for determining the percentage of visual impairment shall be as follows :

All with corrections Percentage
Better eye Worse eye

Category 0 6/9-6/18 6/24 to 6/36 20%

Category I 6/18-6/36 6/60 to nil 40%

Category II 6/60-4/60 3/60 to nil 75%
or field of
vision 10-20º

Category III 3/60-1/60 F.C. at 1 ft 100%
or field of to nil
vision 10º

Category IV FC. at 1 ft F.C. at 1 ft 100%
to nil field of to nil field of
vision 100º vision 100º

One eyed 6/6 F.C. at 1 ft 30%
person to nil

Note (3) :For availing of the concession admissible to a blind candidate, the candidate concerned shall produce a certificate in the prescribed proforma from a Medical Board constituted by the Central/State Governments alongwith his application for the Main Examination.

Note (4) : The concession admissible to blind candidates shall not be admissible to those suffering from Myopia.
(ii) The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
(iii) If a candidate’s handwriting is not easily legible, a deduction will be made on this account from the total marks otherwise accruing to him.
(iv) Marks will not be allotted for mere superficial knowledge.
(v) Credit will be given for orderly, effective and exact expression combined with due economy of words in all subjects of the examination.
(vi) In the question papers, wherever required, SI units will be used.
(vii) Candidates should use only international form of Indian numerals (i.e. 1,2,3,4,5,6 etc.) while answering question papers.

(viii) Candidates will be allowed the use of Scientific (Non-Programmable type) calculators at the conventional (Essay) type examination of UPSC. Programmable type calculators will however not be allowed and the use of such calculators shall tantamount to resorting to unfair means by the candidates. Loaning or interchanging of calculators in the Examination Hall is not permitted.

It is also important to note that candidates are not permitted to use calculators for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

C. Interview test

The candidate will be interviewed by a Board who will have before them a record of his career. He will be asked questions on matters of general interest. The object of the interview is to assess the personal suitability of the candidate for a career in public service by a Board of competent and unbiased observers. The test is intended to judge the mental calibre of a candidate. In broad terms this is really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities but also social traits and his interst in current affairs. Some of the qualities to be judged are mental alertness, critical powers of assimilation, clear and logical exposition, balance of judgement, variety and depth of interest, ability for social cohesion and leadership, intellectual and moral integrity.

2. The technique of the interview is not that of a strict cross-examination but of a natural, though directed and purposive conversation which is intended to reveal the mental qualities of the candidate.

3. The interview test is not intended to be a test either of the specialised or general knowledge of the candidates which has been already tested through their written papers. Candidates are expected to have taken an intelligent interest not only in their special subjects of academic study but also in the events which are happening around them both within and outside their own state or country as well as in modern currents of thought and in new discoveries which should rouse the curiosity of well educated youth.

April 1, 2010

List of circulating currencies by country

Filed under: Uncategorized — Tags: , — bhartirajesh @ 7:34 am

Country or territory[1] Currency[2] Sign[3]
Afghanistan Afghan afghani ؋
Argentina Argentine peso $
Australia Australian dollar $
Austria Euro
Bangladesh Bangladeshi taka
Belgium Euro
Bermuda Bermudian dollar $
Bhutan Bhutanese ngultrum
Indian rupee
Brazil Brazilian real R$
Bulgaria Bulgarian lev лв
Canada Canadian dollar $
Chile Chilean peso $
China, People’s Republic of Chinese yuan
Cuba Cuban convertible peso $
Cuban peso $
Czech Republic Czech koruna
Denmark Danish krone kr
Ecuador United States dollar $
None None
Egypt Egyptian pound £ or ج.م
Fiji Fijian dollar $
Finland Euro
France Euro
Germany Euro
Ghana Ghanaian cedi
Greece Euro
Hong Kong Hong Kong dollar $
Iceland Icelandic króna kr
India Indian rupee Rs
Indonesia Indonesian rupiah Rp
Iran Iranian rial
Iraq Iraqi dinar ع.د
Ireland Euro
Israel Israeli new sheqel
Italy Euro
Jamaica Jamaican dollar $
Japan Japanese yen ¥
Kazakhstan Kazakhstani tenge
Kenya Kenyan shilling Sh
Korea, North North Korean won
Korea, South South Korean won
Kuwait Kuwaiti dinar د.ك
Kyrgyzstan Kyrgyzstani som
Libya Libyan dinar ل.د
Malaysia Malaysian ringgit RM
Maldives Maldivian rufiyaa ރ.
Mexico Mexican peso $
Myanmar Myanma kyat K
Nepal Nepalese rupee
Netherlands Euro
New Zealand New Zealand dollar $
Norway Norwegian krone kr
Pakistan Pakistani rupee
Palestine Israeli new sheqel
Jordanian dinar د.ا
Poland Polish złoty
Russia Russian ruble руб.
Saudi Arabia Saudi riyal ر.س
Singapore Brunei dollar $
Singapore dollar $
South Africa South African rand R
Spain Euro
Sri Lanka Sri Lankan rupee Rs
Sudan Sudanese pound £
Sweden Swedish krona kr
Switzerland Swiss franc Fr
Tajikistan Tajikistani somoni ЅМ
Thailand Thai baht ฿
Turkey Turkish lira TL
Uganda Ugandan shilling Sh
United Arab Emirates United Arab Emirates dirham

March 31, 2010

General Studies UPSC Test Papers

Filed under: Uncategorized — Tags: , , — bhartirajesh @ 6:41 am

1) Arrange in the order of Evolution
1) Upanishads
2) Aranyakas
3) Vedas
4) Brahman

a) 3,1,2,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 3,4,2,1 d)3,2,4,1

2) Find wrong pair
a) Amending process-South Africa
b) Fundamental duties- USSR
c)Federal natureCanada
d)Judicial Review-UK

3)2004 NobelPrize was awrded to 3 Americans Frank Wilezek, David Politzer David Gross for
a) Quark Theory b) Quantum Theory
c) Sensitivity Theory d) Ultra Effect

4) Arrange according to size of planets in ascending order.
1) Venus 2) Mars 3) Uranus 4) Neptune

a) 1,2,3,4 b) 1,2,4,3 c) 2,1,4,3 d 2,1,3,4

5)Find X
5/8, 11/18, x , 47/78
a)17/36 b)19/46 c) 31/63 d) 23/38

6) Masole, a type of shifting cultivation is practiced in
a) Malaysia b) Venezula c) Brazil d)Zaire basin

7) I) Jainism split into two sects after first Jaina Council at Pataliputhra.
II) Budhism split into two sects after Second Budhist Council at Vaishali
a)I True b)II True c)Both True d)Both Wrong

8) What are true about Igneous Rocks?
1) Acid Rocks Contain mostly Silicon.
2) They are normally non crystalline 3) Don’t occur in Layers 4) Don’t contain fossils
a) 1,2,3 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,3,4 d) 1,2,3,4

9) I) In Berubari case preamble was held to be not part of Constitution.
II) In Kesavanda Bharati case Preamble was held to be part of Constitution.
a)I True b)II True c)Both True d)Both Wrong

10) I) James Princep found the Rock Edicts of Ashoka in 1837.
II) The edicts were in 4 languages and the main was Prakarit and Written in Brahmi
a)I True b)II True c)Both True d)Both Wrong

11) Woodbridge (Australia) won 9th Doubles Title with Bjormanof—–
a) Austria b)Russia c) Swedon d) France

12) Vishnugupta was the last Gupta King. Who was the last GREAT Gupta ruler?
a)Skandagupta b) Kumaragupta
c) Chandragupta II d) Samudragupta

13) What are true about Cirrus Clouds?
1) They are silky by appearance and high clouds
2) They are entirely composed of ice crystals
3) When they are arranged irregular they indicate fair weather.
4) When they are systematically arranged they indicate hot weather.
a) 1,2,3 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,2,4 d) 1,2,3,4

14) What is wrong about Pacific Ocean?
a) Largest and Deepest Ocean
b) Continental shelves in Eastern Coast are extensive and on western Coast are less extensive
c) There are more scattered ridges
d) Its area is more than the land area of the world.

15) Which Fundamental Right is available to Citizens only?
a) General Equality b) Religious right
c) Right against Exploitation
d) Freedom of Residence

Answers key:

1)c 2)d 3)a 4)c 5)d

6)d 7)a 8)c 9)c 10)c

11)c 12)a 13)a 14)c 15)d

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